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OT Latin final -M

From:R A Brown <ray@...>
Date:Wednesday, January 25, 2006, 18:18
Andreas Johansson wrote:
[snip]
> > Checking the book again, I see I may have misinterpreted him. He writes, when > discussing change is pronunciation during the late Empire, that final /m/ was > lost "fairly early" - I took this to mean fairly early during the late imperial > period, but there really isn't anything to tell relative to what the loss was > fairly early. Maybe he meant fairly early in the history of spoken Latin.
If so, then I agree entirely. ================================== Mark J. Reed wrote: > So how far back must one go before the common pronunciation of Latin > matches the CL prescription? I doubt very much if there ever was a time. Classical Latin is essentially a prescription, based on Greek models, of what the literati thought Latin should be like. A bit like Sanskrit, I suppose, except that the Romans never had a Panini to make a proper job of it :) The reconstructions of people like Sidney Allen are reconstructions of pronunciation the literate classes would have used in pronouncing the 'purified' language. I suspect people like Caesar & Cicero were trilingual: Classical Latin, Vulgar Latin, Koine Greek. -- Ray ================================== ray@carolandray.plus.com http://www.carolandray.plus.com ================================== MAKE POVERTY HISTORY