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Re: Medio-passive (was: A Survey)

From:Rob Haden <magwich78@...>
Date:Wednesday, October 1, 2003, 20:52
On Wed, 1 Oct 2003 18:48:38 +0100, Ray Brown <ray.brown@...> wrote:

>One could indeed, for that is what the Latin '3rd sing. passive' >once was - the impersonal form still found in the Britto-Gallic >languages. It's one of several isoglosses that have led many >to think in terms of an 'Italo-Celtic' language family. > >The Latin passive was a secondary formation >derived partly by extending the impersonal -r; and it never >extended beyond tenses formed on the infectum ("present >stem"). The perfect tenses were formed, as you know, >analytically with verb 'to be" as auxiliary.
So where did the impersonal -r come from? - Rob