Re: Case/Tense question

Nik Taylor wrote:

> raccoon@ELKNET.NET wrote:
> > Well, in my idiolect of English at least, <I'll> has two syllables: [ai l=]
> > (where l= is syllabic l). So maybe you could make is [ai@l] > [ai@] and work
> > from there?
>
> No, wouldn't work.  /aj/ --> /e/ --> /E/, and also /@/ --> /E/, so /aj@/
> --> /e@/ --> /E/.  But, it might work for other persons:
That assumes that all persons need to have distinct tense forms;
there's no logical reason why that has to be the case (of course,
you can if you want to).

> /It/ --> /Et/ --> /&t/
> /It@l/ --> /E?@/ --> /&?E/ --> /&j/ --> /ej/
Why a /?/ there?  That could work if you assume the colony derives
from a Cockney-like dialect, but most English speakers don't use
glottal stops there (though, correct me if I'm wrong, most do use it
before syllabic /n/).    If it were coming from something like my dialect,
<it'll> would start from [Id@l] (being the American that I am).

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Tom Wier <artabanos@...>
AIM: Deuterotom ICQ: 4315704
<http://www.angelfire.com/tx/eclectorium/>
"Cogito ergo sum, sed credo ergo ero."
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